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MPC: Monetary Policy Committee
Monetary policy refers to the policy of the central bank regarding the use of monetary instruments under its control to achieve the objectives specified in the law. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is responsible for implementing the monetary policy. This responsibility is explicitly set out in the Reserve Bank of India Act – 1934. The main objective of monetary policy is to maintain price stability taking into account the objective of growth. Price stability is a prerequisite for sustainable growth.
Introduction
In May 2016, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act of 1934 was amended to provide a legal basis for the implementation of the flexible inflation targeting framework. The RBI amendment also sets the inflation target to be set by the Indian government, in consultation with the Reserve Bank, once in every five years. Consequently, the central government notified 4% inflation of the consumer price index (CPI) as a target for the period between August 5, 2016 to March 31, 2021 with an upper tolerance limit 6% and lower tolerance limit of 2%.
The central government has notified the following factors as constituting non-compliance with the inflation target
- Average inflation has been above the upper tolerance level of the inflation target for three consecutive quarters; or
- Average inflation has been below the lowest tolerance level for three consecutive quarters.
Before the amendment of the RBI law in May 2016, the flexible inflation targeting framework was governed by a monetary policy framework agreement between the government and the Reserve Bank of India of February 20, 2015.
The amended RBI law explicitly grants the legislative mandate to the Reserve Bank to administer the country’s monetary policy framework. The framework aims to set the repurchase rate (Repo) based on an assessment of the current and evolving macroeconomic situation; and modulating liquidity conditions to anchor money market rates at or around the repurchase rate. Changes in repurchase rates pass through the money market to the entire financial system, which, in turn, influences aggregate demand, a key determinant of inflation and growth. Once the repurchase rate has been announced, the operational framework designed by the Reserve Bank will contemplate managing daily liquidity through appropriate actions, which aim to anchor the operational objective – the weighted average call rate (WACR) – around the repo rate.
The operating framework is refined and revised in accordance with the evolution of financial markets and monetary conditions, while ensuring consistency with the monetary policy stance. The liquidity management framework was last revised significantly in April 2016.
Section 45ZB of the amended RBI Act of 1934 also provides for the establishment of a six-member monetary policy committee (MPC) empowered by the central government by notification in the Official Gazette. Consequently, in September 2016, the central government established the MPC.
The MPC determines the key interest rate necessary to reach the inflation target. The first MPC meeting was held on October 3 and 4, 2016 on the eve of the fourth bi-monthly monetary policy statement 2016-2017. The RBI Monetary Policy Department (MPD) assists the MPC in formulating its monetary policy. The opinions of the main economic players and the analytical work of the Reserve Bank contribute to the decision-making process on the key rate.
The Financial Markets Operations Department (FMOD) operationalizes monetary policy, mainly through daily liquidity management operations. The Financial Markets Committee (FMC) meets daily to review the liquidity conditions to ensure that the operational objective of the weighted average call rate (WACR) is reached.
Before the establishment of the MPC, a technical advisory committee (TAC) on monetary policy, composed of experts in the monetary economy, central banks, financial markets and public finance, advised the Reserve Bank on the direction of monetary policy. However, its role was only of an advisory nature. With the formation of the MPC, the TAC on monetary policy ceased to exist. There are several direct and indirect instruments that are used for implementing monetary policy.
- Repo Rate: The interest rate at which the Reserve Bank provides overnight liquidity to banks against the collateral of government and other approved securities under the liquidity adjustment facility (LAF).
- Reverse Repo Rate: The interest rate at which the Reserve Bank absorbs liquidity, on an overnight basis, from banks against the collateral of eligible government securities under the LAF.
- Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF): The LAF consists of overnight as well as term repo auctions. Progressively, the Reserve Bank has increased the proportion of liquidity injected under fine-tuning variable rate repo auctions of range of tenors. The aim of term repo is to help develop the inter-bank term money market, which in turn can set market based benchmarks for pricing of loans and deposits, and hence improve transmission of monetary policy. The Reserve Bank also conducts variable interest rate reverse repo auctions, as necessitated under the market conditions.
- Marginal Standing Facility (MSF): A facility under which scheduled commercial banks can borrow additional amount of overnight money from the Reserve Bank by dipping into their Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) portfolio up to a limit at a penal rate of interest. This provides a safety valve against unanticipated liquidity shocks to the banking system.
- Corridor: The MSF rate and reverse repo rate determine the corridor for the daily movement in the weighted average call money rate.
- Bank Rate: It is the rate at which the Reserve Bank is ready to buy or rediscount bills of exchange or other commercial papers. The Bank Rate is published under Section 49 of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. This rate has been aligned to the MSF rate and, therefore, changes automatically as and when the MSF rate changes alongside policy repo rate changes.
- Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR): The average daily balance that a bank is required to maintain with the Reserve Bank as a share of such per cent of its Net demand and time liabilities (NDTL) that the Reserve Bank may notify from time to time in the Gazette of India.
- Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR): The share of NDTL that a bank is required to maintain in safe and liquid assets, such as, unencumbered government securities, cash and gold. Changes in SLR often influence the availability of resources in the banking system for lending to the private sector.
- Open Market Operations (OMOs): These include both, outright purchase and sale of government securities, for injection and absorption of durable liquidity, respectively.
- Market Stabilizations Scheme (MSS): This instrument for monetary management was introduced in 2004. Surplus liquidity of a more enduring nature arising from large capital inflows is absorbed through sale of short-dated government securities and treasury bills. The cash so mobilized is held in a separate government account with the Reserve Bank.
Under the amended RBI Act, the monetary policy making is as under
- The MPC is required to meet at least four times in a year.
- The quorum for the meeting of the MPC is four members.
- Each member of the MPC has one vote, and in the event of an equality of votes, the Governor has a second or casting vote.
- The resolution adopted by the MPC is published after conclusion of every meeting of the MPC in accordance with the provisions of Chapter III F of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
- On the 14th day, the minutes of the proceedings of the MPC are published which include:
- the resolution adopted by the MPC;
- the vote of each member on the resolution, ascribed to such member; and
- The statement of each member on the resolution adopted.
Once in every six months, the Reserve Bank is required to publish a document called the Monetary Policy Report to explain
- the sources of inflation; and
- The forecast of inflation for 6-18 months ahead.
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MP Pre B. Ed. Notification came out
MP VYAPAM organizes the B.Ed Entrance Examination to select suitable candidates for Bachelor of Education courses. Applicants who wish to enroll in B.Ed courses must qualify for the entrance exam by meeting the eligibility criteria established by the board.
- Registration for admission to the MP Pre B. Ed will begin on August 5, 2021 (provisionally)
- There is no age bar to the exam.
- Candidates graduating from any discipline with a minimum total of 50 percent marks (45 percent for SC / ST candidates) may apply for the exam.
- The exam will consist of 4 sections containing 100 questions.
- There is no negative mark on the exam.
The exam is held for applicants who wish to apply for a one-year B. Ed course at private colleges and universities approved by the state NCTE. Candidates interested in applying for the exam must register in the MP Online system.
The official examination dates have not yet been announced. Applicants can go through the tentative dates.
Eligibility criteria for MP Pre B.Ed 2021
Applicants applying for the MP Pre B.Ed 2021 must ensure that they meet the specified eligibility criteria of the MP Pre B.Ed. Important conditions are listed below:
- The candidate must be an Indian citizen.
- A minimum qualification that the candidate must achieve to meet the eligibility criteria is graduation.
- Graduate students can also apply for the entrance exam.
- A minimum of 50% of the marks is required if the candidates belong to the general category.
- In the case of the reserved category, the minimum mark will be 45% either at the end of the studies or at the postgraduate level.
- In 10 + 2, candidates must have science as a subject.
- Candidates taking the year-end exam can also apply for the entrance exam.
Application form for MP Pre B.Ed 2021
Applicants can read the full MP Pre B.Ed 2021 registration by following the steps below. Applicants should verify the information entered on the MP Pre B.Ed application form and also verify the uploaded documents before submitting.
- Applicants who wish to apply for the MP Pre B.Ed entrance test should apply only in online mode by visiting the official website, vyapam.nic.in
- First of all, the application step is to register on the official website.
- Once the registration process is complete, applicants will be able to receive login information on their cell phone number and email ID.
- As login credentials are received, applicants can rate the application form.
- Now completely fill out the application form with correct details, scanned photo and signature if required.
- Pay the required application fee through the MP KIOSK online mode.
- Verify the details that have been uploaded and submit the request form.
- Applicant is requested to bring a printed copy of the completed application form for future reference.
Application Fee for MP Pre B.Ed 2021
Applicants in open categories for the MP Pre B.Ed entrance test must pay a registration fee of INR 500. But those in SC / ST or PWD have to pay 250 INR for the application fee. All applicants must pay fees online only.
Admission card MP Pre B.Ed 2021
The MP Pre B.Ed 2021 admission card will be available online on the official website. Applicants can download it from the official website, vyapam.nic.in. Applicants can obtain the MP Pre B.Ed 2021 Admission Card by logging in with details such as the application form number, date of birth, and security PIN. Candidates must carry a printed copy of the MP Pre B.Ed admission card in the exam room. It would also be necessary in later stages of the exam.
How to download the MP Pre B.Ed 2021 admission card?
The steps to download the MP Pre B.Ed Admission Card 2021 are mentioned below:
- Visit the official website of MP Pre B.Ed 2021, ie vyapam.nic.in
- Click on the link “Download the admission card”
- Applicants must enter their application form number, date of birth, and security PIN code.
- Check all the details carefully
- Download the MP Pre B.Ed 2021 admission card
MP Pre B.Ed 2021 Examination Pattern
MP Pre B.Ed 2021 will take place in May in offline mode. The following table represents the highlights of the MP Pre B.Ed exam 2021 Pattern:
| Exam Pattern Highlights | |
| MP Pre B.Ed 2021 Exam Date | To be declared |
| Language of paper | English/ Hindi |
| Mode of examination | Offline |
| Total marks | 100 |
| Number of sections | 4 |
| Marking scheme | There will be no Negative Marking for any wrong Answer. |
Subject-wise MP B. Ed Exam Pattern 2021
MP Pre B.Ed entrance exam will consist of 100 objective type questions with a total of 100 marks divided into four sections. The required duration to complete the exam is 2 hours.
| Subjects | Marks | Duration |
| Mental Ability | 30 | 3 Hour |
| Teacher Aptitude | 30 | |
| General Knowledge | 20 | |
| Language Comprehension | 20 |
MP Pre B. Ed Exam 2021 Syllabus
The following is a prescribed subject curriculum for candidates taking the MP Pre B.Ed.
Part I- General mental Ability
Reasoning, seeing relationships, analogies, number ability, spatial relationship, intruder, series of numbers, series of letters, relationship by letters, numbers and digits, coded language, hidden digits, mathematical operations, number correspondence, cube and model problems different types.
Part II- General awareness
This section will be limited to India with special reference to the state of Madhya Pradesh, except for general science.
- History of India: cultural development of India, historical events, history of the independence of India (1857 to 1947), development after 1947.
- Political science: Duties and fundamental rights, Important provisions of the Constitution regarding education, language, culture, national unity, citizenship, openness, national symbol and national personalities, parliamentary assemblies.
- Economy: socio-economic development, demographic prospects, gross national product, per capita income, education budget – state and country, planning process, agriculture, rural development, industrial and commercial development, Indian economy, banking system, employment problem, current economy events.
- Geography: natural resources and wealth, environment and ecology, geographical features of the states of India.
- General Science: Important Inventions and Inventors, Health and Hygiene, General Scientific Phenomenon
Part III (general English)
- Simple and compound sentences
- Type of clauses
- Sentence transformation
- Tenses
- Voice change and narration
- Modals
- Verbal structures
- Tag Questions
- Propositions
- Prefixes and suffixes
- Synonyms and antonyms
- Reading Comprehension: Comprehension of a passage of approximately 300 words that deals with a general topic followed by multiple-choice questions.
Part IV (Teaching ability)
This section would include questions about child suitability, adaptability, vocational information, and interest in the teaching profession.
Result of MP Pre B.Ed 2021
The MP Pre B.Ed leaderboard can be viewed online on the official website. The rating scale will form the basis of the result of MP Pre B.Ed 2021. Candidates can verify the result of MP Pre B.Ed 2021 by entering their registration number, date of birth and captcha code displayed on the screen.
How to check the rank card of MP Pre B.Ed?
The steps to check the result of MP Pre B.Ed are given below:
- Visit the official website of MP Pre B.Ed 2021, ie vyapam.nic.in
- Click on the tab “MP Pre B.Ed Result 2021”
- Enter the role number, password and captcha code of MP Pre B.Ed 2021.
- Download the result of MP Pre B.Ed 2021 displayed on the screen.
- Print out the result.
MP Pre B.Ed 2021 counseling procedure
The 2021 schedule for MP Pre B. Ed Counseling will be announced by the Madhya Pradesh Professional Council. This year, a large number of applicants registered online for the MP Pre B.Ed. Once the results are reported, applicants await the admissions counseling process.
- Candidates can participate in orientation at the time of their choice based on the rank obtained on the written exam. Applicants must verify their rank on the hosting institution’s website and participate at the scheduled time.
- At the time of counseling, applicants must bring the original document along with a Xerox copy of the certificates. Applicants must obtain the position in the university based on the scores obtained in the written test.
- Applicants must visit the official website and choose the MP Pre B.Ed. Applicants are now required to fill in the basic details by paying an advisory fee.
- Applicants must arrive at the boarding location in time for the MP Pre B.Ed 2021 seat assignment. Applicants must bring the documents provided below:
- Original certificate of registration and intermediary
- Admission card MP Pre B.Ed 2021
- Control panel MP Pre B.Ed 2021
- Domicile certificate
- Community certificate as SC / ST / OBC
- Passport size photo
- Applicants must arrive on time at the MP Pre B.Ed 2021 counseling site with all documents. In case of discrepancy in the verification of documents or non-payment of the admission fee for the confirmation of the seat, the seat transferred to another candidate or the admission will be canceled.
- MP Pre B.Ed 2021 1st round of counseling begins and you receive a seat allocation letter based on your assured rank in the written exam. After completing the first round, candidates will be able to apply for the second round.
- Candidates will be allocated a seat according to their rank. Candidates who have not allocated a seat can participate in the second round. The 3rd round will be able to make the only vacant place in the establishments.
MP High Court Recruitment 2020
Madhya Pradesh High Court has published a recruitment notification for the post of Civil Judge. The recruitment will be done on the basis of Civil Judge Class 2 (Entry Level) Exam 2019. MP High Court Civil Judge Online Application will begin from 22 September 2020 on the official website – mphc.gov.in.
- Candidates with requisite qualification and experience can apply for MP High Court Civil Judge Exam on or before 05 November 2020.
- The exam will be conducted in two phases i.e. MP High Court Civil Judge Prelims Exam and MP High Court Civil Judge Mains Exam.
- Candidates can check the exam pattern, selection criteria, and educational qualification of MP High Court Civil Judge Recruitment 2020 below:
Important Dates
- Commencement of submission of application: 22 September 2020 at 12 PM,
- Last date for submission of online application: 05 November 2020,
- Rectification in application form – From 10 November 2020 to 12 November 2020,
- MP High Court Civil Judge Preliminary Exam Date: to be notified later,
- MP High Court Civil Judge Mains Exam Date: to be notified later
MP High Court Civil Judge Exam 2020 Vacancy Details
Civil Judge Grade II – 252 Posts
Eligibility Criteria for MP High Court Civil Judge Exam 2020
Educational Qualification: Candidate should have a Degree in Law from a recognized University.
Age Limit: 21 to 35 years as on 01 January 2020
Selection Process for MP High Court Civil Judge Posts
Selection will be done on the basis of written test (Preliminary and Mains) and Interview.
How to apply for MP High Court Civil Judge Exam 2020 ?
Candidates can apply to the post through the online mode from 22 September to 05 November 2020 on the official website – mphc.gov.in.
Eligibility and Age Limit – Madhya Pradesh Judicial Service Civil Judge Class II Exam
1. Education Qualification: Candidates who have completed their LLB degree ( 3 year or 5 year ) from a Government (and Bar Council) recognized University are eligible to apply for MP High Court Civil Judge Class II recruitment exam.
2. Age Limit: The minimum age limit to apply for MP High Court Civil Judge Recruitment is 21 Years while the maximum age is 35 years as on the cut off date mentioned in the advertisement for the year.
Scheme of Madhya Pradesh Civil Judge Class- II (Entry Level) Exam
The Examination shall be conducted in three stages:
(i) Online Preliminary Examination (Multiple Choice Objective test, with negative marking)
(ii) Main Examination (Descriptive, written exam)
(iii) Viva-voce (Personal interview)
Syllabus – Online Preliminary Exam – Madhya Pradesh Civil Judge Exam (Judicial Magistrate First Class)
The Online Preliminary Examination is for two hours, with 150 objective-type questions of one mark each. The break-up is as below:
- Constitution of India – 10 questions
- Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 – 15 questions
- Transfer of Property Act, 1882 – 7 questions
- Indian Contract Act, 1872 – 8 questions
- Specific Relief Act, 1963 – 6 questions
- Limitation Act, 1963 – 4 questions
- MP Accommodation Control Act, 1961 – 5 questions
- MP Land Revenue Code, 1959 – 5 questions
- Indian Evidence Act, 1872 – 15 questions
- Indian Penal Code, 1861 – 15 questions
- Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 – 15 questions
- Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 – 5 questions
- General Knowledge – 20 questions
- Computer Knowledge – 10 questions
- English Knowledge – 10 questions
Syllabus for the Main Written Exam – Madhya Pradesh Civil Judge Exam
The Main Examination consists of four Question Papers each paper carrying 100 marks (Total of 400 marks). The time period for each question paper will be of 3 hours.
First Question Paper: (Marks – 100)
Constitution of India
Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
Transfer of Property Act, 1882
Indian Contract Act, 1872
Specific Reliefs Act, 1963 (I, II and VI to VIII)
Limitation Act, 1963 (Parts II & III)
Second Question Paper: (Marks – 100)
Writing on Social Issue- 30 marks
Writing on Legal Issue- 20 marks
Precis Writing- 20 marks
Translation (Hindi to English)- 15 marks
Translation (English to Hindi)- 15 marks
Third Question Paper: (Marks – 100)
MP Accommodation Control Act, 1961
MP Land Revenue Code, 1959
Indian Evidence Act, 1872
Indian Penal Code, 1860
Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881
Fourth Question Paper: (Marks – 100)
Framing of Issues- 10 marks
Framing of Charges- 10 marks
Judgement / Order (Civil) Writing- 40 marks ( Civil Judge II Class level )
Judgement / Order (Criminal) Writing- 40 marks ( Judicial Magistrate First Class Level )
Note: For the Judgement / Order writing, a Plaint, Written Statement, Charge Sheet and Complaint will be provided as applicable.
Viva-voce (Personal Interview)
The maximum marks for viva-voce are 50.
Note: Only the marks from the main exam and the viva-voce will be used for arriving at the final rankings.
More than 29% of candidates passed JEE Advanced 2021
The Joint Entrance Examination Advanced (JEE), the entrance test for admission to Indian Institutes of Technology (IIT), was passed by 41,862 applicants this year, which is 29.54% of the total of candidates who have passed the test. The results of the JEE seat allocation and counselling will be organized by the Joint Seating Allocation Authority (JoSAA). The counseling is conducted as a centralized online admission process for admission to 23 IIT, 31 NIT, IIEST Shibpur, 26 IIIT and 29 other government funded technical institutes (other GFTIs).
- A total of 41,862 candidates qualified for the JEE-Advanced this year, of which 6,452 are girl candidates. Mridual Agarwal is AIR 1 with a score of 348 out of 360 points on the Joint Entrance Examination (JEE) Advanced. Kavya Chopra from Delhi region is the best female with 286 points out of 360. She has obtained AIR 98.
- Applicants will need their JEE Advanced 2021 list number, date of birth and phone number to verify their registration. scorecard. The result will be available as a scoreboard and the entire India ranking will also be mentioned. Based on the answer key, the students’ answers and the marking scale, the JEE Advanced result will be prepared. It will mention the marks and rank of the candidates.
- Mridul Agarwal from the IIT Delhi region was this time the all India topper. Kavya Chopra (98th place) was the first woman in all of India. Agarwal scored 348 of 360, while Chopra scored 286. Dhananjay Raman and Anant Lunia from Delhi took second and third places in the exam.
- This year, 1,41699 candidates took the entrance exam, which was held on 3 October. Last year, 43,204 (28.64%) of the 150,838 applicants qualified. Of these, 16,061 were offered seats.
- A review of the figures for 2019 and 2018 shows that the proportion of qualified applicants was 23.99% and 20.62%, respectively. This year, the IIT Delhi and IIT Bombay zones have 28 qualified candidates, each in the top 100. The IIT Hyderabad zone has 27, the IIT Roorkee zone 13, the IIT Kanpur zone 3 and the IIT Kharagpur zone 1. The IIT zone Guwahati does not have one.
- While the maximum aggregate was 396 in the case of JEE-advanced 2020, this year it was 360. The scores in the exam, organized by IIT Kharagpur, were the same as last year with 5 % in each subject and in aggregate 17.5%.
- Applicants must meet both subject and aggregate qualification levels to be included in the ranking list. The chairman of the exam organization, Debashish Chakraborty of IIT Kharagpur, said that among the qualified candidates, 6,452 are women. Up to 32,285 women took the exam.
- The figures show that 32.36% of male applicants and 19.98% of women who took the exam qualified, up from 30.93% and 20.42% in 2020. A transgender candidate scored as well. as 375 applicants with disabilities, 169 (foreign nationals of India / people of Indian descent) and seven foreigners.
- Seats for qualified candidates will be offered based on advice from the Joint Seat Assignment Authority (JoSAA) from Saturday.
JEE Advanced Cutoff
Candidates can refer to the JEE Advanced 2021 cut off from the table below.
| Category | Min. marks in each subject | Min. aggregate marks |
| CRL | 6 | 63 |
| OBC-NCL | 5 | 56 |
| GEN-EWS | 5 | 56 |
| SC | 3 | 31 |
| ST | 3 | 31 |
JEE Advanced 2021 Zone wise toppers
IIT Delhi Zone – Mridul Agarwal, AIR 1
IIT Bombay. – Soni Naman Nirmal, AIR 6
IIT Guwahati – Asmit Singh, AIR 120
IIT Kanpur – Yash Virani, AIR 37
IIT Kharagpur – Akshat Goyal, AIR 44
IIT Hyderabad – Ramaswamy Santhosh Reddy, AIR 4
IIT Roorkee – Chaitanya Aggarwal, AIR 8
JEE Advanced Counselling
Joint Seat Allocation Authority (JoSAA) will conduct the counselling for admission into IITs, NITs, IIITs, IIEST and GFTIs on the basis of JEE Advanced and JEE Main ranks. Counselling will commence from October 16 at 10 am in online mode. Registration and choice filling will be open from October 16. Choice filling ends on October 21, 2021.
Other institutes that consider JEE Advanced ranks for admissions are:
- Indian Institute of Science, Bangalore (IISc)
- Indian Institutes of Science Education and Research (IISERs)
- Indian Institute of Space Science and Technology (IIST), Thiruvananthapuram
- Rajiv Gandhi Institute of Petroleum Technology (RGIPT), Rae Bareli
- Indian Institute of Petroleum & Energy, Vishakhapatnam.
Admissions to the above mentioned institutes are not through JoSSA. Candidates need to apply to the respective institutes for the same on the basis of their JEE Advanced ranks.
JEE Advanced Cutoff for Top IITs
Candidates can refer to the JEE Advanced 2020 round 6 cutoff for reference from the table below.
| Institute Name | Course Name | Cutoff (Closing Rank- Gen Category) |
| IIT Madras | CSE | 158 |
| IIT Delhi | CSE | 105 |
| IIT Bombay | CSE | 66 |
| IIT Kanpur | CSE | 239 |
| IIT Kharagpur | CSE | 293 |
More than 12 lakh of candidates registered for UGC-NET:
The exam on November 20 was successfully conducted in 177 cities and 338 centers in two shifts of 3 hours each. About 48% of the candidates presented were women with 4 candidates of the third sex as well.
The University Grant Commission (UGC) had merged the National Eligibility Test Examination (NET) for the December 2020 and June 2021 cycles and the last exam took place in June 2020. There are about 12.67 lakh of candidates registered for this UGC NET cycle who will be taking their exams in computer-based test mode (CBT) in India in 213 cities and 469 centers, the NTA said in an official notice.
The exam on November 20 was successfully conducted in 177 cities and 338 centers in two shifts of 3 hours each. In total, 52,335 candidates presented themselves in 36 different subjects, 13,975 appeared in the first round for 19 subjects and 38,360 appeared in the second round for 17. About 48% of the candidates presented were women with 4 candidates of the third sex. also.
To ensure the smooth running of the Day 1 exam, 1,783 blockers and 8,142 CCTV cameras were installed at all sites, helping NTA-appointed national and regional coordinators to observe virtually all of the exam administration. In a center in Assam, the exam was postponed to November 28 for technical reasons.
The examination was carried out in the subjects of Adult Education / Continuing Education / Andragogy / Non-Formal Education, Arab Culture and Islamic Studies, Arabic, Archeology, Buddhist, Jain, Gandhian and Peace Studies, Chinese, Comparative Literature, Study comparison of religions, Criminology, Defense and strategic studies, Popular literature, Forensic sciences, French (French version), Human rights and duties, Indian culture, Linguistics, Mass communication and journalism, Museology and conservation, Nepalese, Pali, Persian, Philosophy, Politics including International Relations / International Studies including Defense / Strategic Studies, West Asian Studies, South East Asian Studies, African Studies, South Asian Studies, Soviet Studies, American Studies, Spanish, Tourism Administration and Management, Tribal and Religious Language / Literature.
The UGC NET exam is ongoing for 81 test articles for the award of a Junior Research Fellowship (JRF) and / or Adjunct Professor eligibility.
More Colleges to Consider CUET for PG Admissions
CUET PG 2023: Applicants will be able to check changes, addition of courses, universities on the official website: cuet.nta.nic.in.
CUET PG 2023: The National Testing Agency (NTA) published a corrigendum for the Common University Access Test Exam (CUET-PG) 2023. Candidates can check the changes on the official website — cuet.nta.nic.in .
In accordance with this corrigendum, the University of English and Foreign Languages will accept the CUET PG score as eligibility criteria for its postgraduate programs. “The University of English and Foreign Languages had previously withdrawn from CUET (PG)-2023 at the last moment, so the name of the university does not appear on the list of participating universities. However, the courses offered by the universities are visible in the cluster list, now the university has joined CUET (PG)-2023 again and applicants can apply for the same”, the official statement reads.
In addition to this, Shri Mata Vaishno Devi University, Shri Vishwakarma University of Skills, Parul University (Vadodra), Netaji Subhas University of Technology (Dwarka, New Delhi), SRM University Delhi, Institute of Professional Studies Gyani Inder Singh affiliated with Veer Madho Singh Bhandari Uttarakhand Technical University (Dehradun), University of Science and Technology (Meghalaya), TERI School of Advanced Studies, Quantum University, Jaypee Institute of Information Technology (Noida), Sharda University, among others, will also get the CUET PG score now. Jammu University, Pondicherry University, Dr. Harisingh Gour Vishwavidyalaya Sagar, Tripura University, Somaiya Vidyavihar University, Dr. B.R. Ambedkar from Delhi and many more have added some courses to their list of CUET PG courses. There are also some fixes made to the listing, which were caused by a typo. Meanwhile, UGC Principal M Jagadesh Kumar assured students that the exam schedule will be released soon as it is still a work in progress.
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Moody’s rating
Ratings agency Moody’s downgraded India’s long-term issuer and Indian local currency ratings from Baa2 to Baa3, maintaining a negative outlook, citing a prolonged period of weak growth and further deterioration in the government’s budget situation.
Baa3 is the second lowest investment rating on the Moody’s rating scale. This means that India is just a cut above the non-investment grade or unwanted category. The rating agency expects the country’s GDP to contract by 4% in the current fiscal year due to the impact of the pandemic and the associated closure measures. However, GDP growth is expected to rebound in the next fiscal year to 8.7% and to approach 6% the following year.
Previously Moody’s raised the country’s rating to Baa2 in November 2017. The rating agency said economic growth slowed to decrease the government’s ability to reduce its debt burden and the pandemic to increase its debt burden to around 84% of GDP during the year ongoing, compared to 72%.
What is Credit Rating?
A credit rating is a quantified assessment of the borrower’s creditworthiness in general terms or in relation to a particular debt or financial obligation. A credit score not only determines whether a borrower will be approved for a loan or debt issue, it also determines the interest rate at which the loan will be repaid.
A credit score can be assigned to any entity seeking to borrow money for an individual, a company, a state or provincial authority, or a sovereign government. Individual credit is evaluated on a numerical scale based on the FICO calculation; Bonds issued by companies and governments are rated by credit agencies using a letter system.
Why we need credit rating?
we need such rating in view of taking loan or debt, essentially it is a promise, often contractual, and a credit rating determines the probability that the borrower is able and willing to repay a loan within the limits of the loan agreement, without default.
A high credit rating indicates a great possibility to pay the loan in full without any problem; A low credit rating suggests that the borrower has had trouble repaying his loans in the past and may follow the same trend in the future.
The credit rating affects the entity’s chances of being approved for a given loan or receiving favorable terms for that loan. while credit score only affect Individos, sovereign credit ratings affect national governments, while corporate credit ratings are considered for companies.
Types of credit ratings
A short-term credit rating reflects the borrower’s probability of default during the year. This type of credit rating has become the norm in recent years, while long-term credit ratings have taken more account in the past. Long-term credit ratings predict the probability of default by the borrower at some point in the extended future.
Credit rating agencies generally assign ratings by letter to indicate ratings. Standard & Poor’s, for example, has a credit rating scale that ranges from AAA (excellent) to C and D. A debt instrument rated below BB is considered a speculative rating or an undesirable bond, what is significant is likely to build the dams.
Credit rating history
Moody’s issued publicly available credit ratings for bonds, in 1909, and other agencies followed suit in the decades after. These ratings didn’t have a profound effect on the market until 1936 when a new rule was passed that prohibited banks from investing in speculative bonds, or bonds with low credit ratings, to avoid the risk of default which could lead to financial losses.
This practice was quickly adopted by other companies and financial institutions and, soon enough, relying on credit ratings became the norm. The global credit rating industry is highly concentrated, with three agencies—Moody’s, Standard & Poor’s and Fitch—controlling nearly the entire market.
Monsoon session: Day 1
The four-hour Monday session of Lok Sabha on the first day of the monsoon session was, in a way, dominated by the pandemic. Members arriving with masks in their rearranged seats to retain seats with physical distancing rules, and criticism from opposition members over the decision to eliminate Question Time to repeated reminders by President Om Birla of that the House meets in an “extraordinary situation”, the pandemic has hovered over the debates.
- More than two dozen MPs from various parties have tested positive, sources confirmed. Lok Sabha’s secretariat declined to release details. Contrary to what he suspected, the participation seems to have surprised the secretariats of both Chambers.
- At Lok Sabha, Birla expressed her satisfaction for the elaborate preparations and cooperation he received from MPs crossing party lines. “I am happy that a large number of MPs have come forward,” he said.
- The sources said more than 300 MPs attended the process. When the House convened after suspending the session for an hour after death notices to deceased members, including former Speaker Pranab Mukherjee, the opposition sharply criticized the government.
- As Parliamentary Affairs Minister Pralhad Joshi said the decision to eliminate Question hour was to minimize “movement of officials,” House Congressman Adhir Ranjan Chowdhury said that the “arguments and justifications” cited for overturning it were “far from convincing.” He said: “Question hour is the very essence of parliamentary democracy … because it makes ‘responsive and responsible executive’.
- Congressman Manish Tewari cited the book “Parliamentary Practice and Procedure in Parliament” by Mr. N Kaul and S L Sakhdher to stress that the House should unanimously agree to eliminate Question hour.
- AIMIM member Asaduddin Owaisi also said Question hour was “essential to the existence of parliamentary democracy”.
- The government argued that Parliamentary Affairs Minister and Defense Minister Rajnath Singh have held talks with the opposition over the measure.
- Zero Hour, reduced to half an hour, also saw the pandemic figure in many of the issues raised. BJP members Bhanu Pratap Verma (Jalaun) and V K Sreekandan (Palakkad) of Congress wanted to resume rail services, canceled during the shutdown, in their constituencies.
- Apna Dal MP Anupriya Patel called on the government to help students who cannot afford a laptop or tablet for online classes by improving DTH services in rural areas.
- Shrirang Appa Barne of Shiv Sena has asked the Center to pay a GST fee in Maharashtra to combat the spread of the coronavirus in the state.
- In his detailed statement on the Covid-19 situation, Health Minister Harsh Vardhan said the battle against the virus was far from over and stressed the need for continued precautionary measures.
- Regarding a Covid-19 vaccine, Vardhan said, “Worldwide, around 145 candidate vaccines are in preclinical evaluation and 35 vaccines are in clinical trials.
- In India … more than 30 candidate vaccines, which are in different stages of development, have been supported. ” RS takes a step to eliminate question time.
- In Rajya Sabha, opposition parties called on the government not to abolish Question Time and said challenging the government was the basis of democracy.
- After Pralhad Joshi brought forward a motion to suspend the rules on Featured Matters and Private Members’ Business in Rajya Sabha, TMC chief Derek O’Brien, who tabled an amendment to the motion, said; ( question hour ) the heart of the democratic parliament; it is the only daily hour when the opposition questions the ministers ”. O’Brien said
- Question hour had never been suspended “in ordinary session” before; “This only happened during the Chinese incursion in 1962 and possibly during the emergency,” he said.
- Opposition leader Ghulam Nabi Azad said that since “people do not have access or do not have the means to ask questions of a minister in parliament,” their representatives, parliamentarians, ask questions on their behalf.
- Speaker Venkaiah Naidu said he too was looking forward to Question hour, but “we are meeting at extraordinary times”. At the end of Question Time, Naidu said: “… there have been several instances where this has been done. I do not want
MHT CET 2022 | Application Form, Exam Dates Revised
Maharashtra Higher and Technical Education Minister Uday Samant announced on April 21 (Thursday) that Maharashtra CET 2022 will now be held in the first week of August 2022.
Maharashtra State Common Entrance Test (CET) cell has postponed the dates of various courses such as BA-BEd, BSc-BEd integrated courses; BPEd, LLb three years; Integrated five-year MPEd and LLb course.
- According to the new timetable, the deadline for submitting application forms for the integrated four-year BA-BEd, BSc BEd course is April 26 and the exam will now take place on June 6, 2022.
- For the LLb course three-year students can submit the application form until April 29 for the exam to be held on June 4-5, 2022.
- For the BEd (general and special) with ELCT for English-speaking universities, The application process will close on April 29 and the exam is scheduled for June 6 and 7.
- The application process for the three-year integrated BEd-MEd course will close on April 27 and the exam will be held on June 9.
- Likewise, the MEd exam will take place on the same date, but the application process will end one day earlier, that is, on April 26.
- Students interested in the integrated LLb-Five years course can complete the application form until May 2 for the exam which will now take place on June 18 and 19, 2022.
MH CET was postponed due to conflicting dates with JEE-Main and NEET 2022. Originally, Maharashtra CET was to be held in the testing window of June 11-28, 2022. According to the revised schedule for JEE-Main, it will be it was held from June 20 to 29, 2022. It was originally scheduled to take place in May. The NEET 2022 will take place in July.
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